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Christ's Death
Subject: Christ's death
Date: Wed, 07 Apr 1999 21:05:47 -0500
From: Mahlon <bible@tk7.net>
To: webservice@centuryone.comHello Sir,
I was doing a search on the Internet on the death of Christ, and I came across your explanation of the chronology of Christ's death and resurrection. I copied your statement from your web page, as you can see.(Your statement)...
Mark 16:1 tells us, "And when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene and Mary (the mother of James and Salome), bought sweet spices that they might come and anoint Him." Luke's account also describes how the women "prepared the spices and ointments" and then they "rested on the Sabbath day according to the commandment." (Luke 23.56) Thus, according to these two accounts, they bought the spices and prepared them after the Sabbath and yet before the Sabbath. There had to be two Sabbaths involved here with a day of preparation between them.Please notice the way Mark 16:1, and Luke 23:56 is worded.
Mark 16:1 And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him. (KJV)
Luke 23:56 And they returned, and prepared spices and ointments; and rested the sabbath day according to the commandment. (KJV)The point I want to bring to your attention is the fact that these scriptures do in no way imply that there were two Sabbaths (as you have assumed). Nor do these scriptures imply that the women waited to buy the spices until after the Sabbath was past. Please note that they "had bought" sweet spices (past tense). You conveniently omitted the little word "had" in your interpretation of Mark 16:1, to make it fit with your assumption of two Sabbaths. Mark 16:1 simply stated that the women wanted to anoint the body of Christ with the spices they already "had bought", which of course by now was "when the Sabbath was past". Luke 23:56 and Mark 16:1 fit beautifully, and will not allow for two Sabbaths as you have assumed. These scriptures are simply explaining that the women bought and prepared the sweet spices, which had to be on the "preparation day"; and then rested on the Sabbath.
After the Sabbath was past, Mark's account explained what they wanted to do with the sweet spices that they had already bought and prepared before the Sabbath. Christ rose sometime in the hours of what we would call Saturday night (the days started at sunset.). The women arrived at Christ's tomb very early on the first day of the week to do this anointing, which by now Christ was already risen as explained in the scriptures; as you know. The Sabbath following Christ's death, according to Moses, would have to be the first day of unleavened bread. This Sabbath is stated as a "high day", and more important, it is also stated in all the gospels as being a singular Sabbath (not a double Sabbath on the same day as some assume it was).
With this understanding, it would mean it also was not the weekly Sabbath. However keep in mind, this event was written and recorded from a "Jewish" viewpoint, as John's gospel repeatedly explains. Therefore speaking from a "Jewish" viewpoint, it could very well have been a double Sabbath on the same day. Christ was our Passover, therefore it must be assumed, according to the law, that he surely would have been sacrificed on the correct day that the Passover was to be killed. I believe Christ was sacrificed on the correct day. However it states in Matt. 26:17 and Mark 14:12 that the Passover was killed on first day of unleavened bread, which of course was before Christ was sacrificed.
Matthew 26:17 Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Jesus, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover? (KJV)
Mark 14:12 And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover? (KJV)Therefore from these scriptures, were the Jews of Christ's day not observing the Passover according to the laws of Moses? I am only asking this as a question. Please reply to me if you have another explanation of these two scriptures. I only want to know the truth.
Another very important point that you fail to realize is that is states repeatedly in the New Testament (fourteen times to be exact), that Christ would be resurrected on the "third day". You make the mistake of assuming that "three days and three nights" are to be taken in a literal sense (seventy two hours). Christ was not in the grave a period of exactly seventy two hours. Keep in mind this is your premise that you use to make the crucifixion fit on a Wed., as you assume. If Christ was indeed dead for seventy two hours (as you claim), then he would have been resurrected one split second of time into the "fourth day"; which contradicts fourteen scriptures. "Three days and three nights" biblically could mean parts of days or nights (whichever fits) totaling a time period ending sometime on the third day. This understanding can be proven with what is stated in Esther 4:16 and 5:1.
Esther 4:16 Go, gather together all the Jews that are present in Shushan, and fast ye for me, and neither eat nor drink three days, night or day: I also and my maidens will fast likewise; and so will I go in unto the king, which is not according to the law: and if I perish, I perish. (KJV)
Esther 5:1 Now it came to pass on the third day, that Esther put on her royal apparel, and stood in the inner court of the king's house, over against the king's house: and the king sat upon his royal throne in the royal house, over against the gate of the house. (KJV)Anyway for what's its worth I have decided to send this little Bible lesson based on how I understand the scriptures, and what I personally believe. I am also sending you my web page with interesting theological topics. I would love hearing from you. Thank you for your time, and may God bless you richly.
http://www.tk7.net/users/bibletruths
In His Service, Mahlon Wickey
Questions or comments?... Email: wickey777@verizon.net